SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER Social Science Class 10

 

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE 87)

TIME: 3Hours                                         Class:  X – 2024-25                                       Max Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. Question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – Question no. 1 to 20 are Objective Type Questions (MCQs) of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 is very short answer type questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C – Question no. 25 to 29 is short answer-based questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no.30 to 33 is long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section E – Question no. 34 to 36 are case/ source based questions with three sub questions and carrying 4 marks  each.

7. Section F- Question no 37 is map based question with two parts, 37.1 from History (2 marks) and 37.2 from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.

9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION A

       MCQs   (1x20= 20)

Q1. Which of the following is true with reference of Satyagraha?
(A) It emphasized the muscle power
(B) It emphasized the Power of truth
(C) Gandhi Ji successfully fought the racist regime of South Africa with the novel method.

(a)   Only A is true (b) Only B is true  (c)  Both A and B are true  (d)  Both B and C are true

Q2. Who is the author of book “ Hind Swaraj”?

(a)   J.L. Nehru  (b) Mahatma Gandhi    (c) Motilal Nehru   (d) Sarojini Naidu

Q3. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Read the statements and choose the correct code

Assertion (A) Different persons have different developmental goals.

 Reason (R) Our society consists of both rich and poor people. Thus, development for rich persons may not be the development for the poor’s.

Options

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

 (d) A is false but R is true

Q4. Identify the person in figure given below who also wrote song of Assam.

 



 

(a)   Gopal Krishan Gokhale

(b)   Lakshminath Bezbaruah

(c)   Raja Ravi Verma

(d)   T. Gogoi

Q5. Select the law enacted by the Parliament for the welfare of women:

(a)   Special marriage act of 1955

(b)   Dowry prohibition act of 1961

(c)   Equal Remuneration act of 1976

(d)   All the above

Q6. Which one of the following is a major caste group in Sri Lanka?

(a)   Tamil and Muslim

(b)   Sinhala and Buddhists

(c)   Christian and Sinhala 

(d)    Tamil and Sinhala

Q7. . In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Read the statements and choose the correct code

Assertion (A) For most ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties.

Reason ( R ) Political Parties are easily one of the most visible institution of democracy.

Options

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

 (d) A is false but R is true

Q8. What is the second category of federation called?

(a)   Binding together federations

(b)   Confederation

(c)   Holding together federation

(d)   Subsidiary federation

Q9. “Sexual Division of labour signifies, that

 

(1)   Gender division emphasizes division on the basis of nature of work.

(2)   Division between men and women

(3)   Caste is the basis of gender division

(4)   Work decides the division between men and women

(a)   i, ii, iii, iv.   (b) i, ii and iv   (c) i and iii    (d)  i and iv

Q10. Match List I (Organization and struggles) with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below.

List 1

List II

1.     Congress Party

A.    National democratic Alliance

2.     BJP

B.    State party

3.     Communist party of India(Marxist)

C.    United Progressive Alliance

4.     Telgu Desam Party

D.    Left front

 

 

1

2

3

4

A

C

A

B

D

B

C

D

A

B

C

C

A

D

B

D

D

C

A

B

 

Q11. What does the Modern Forms of money include?

a)     Paper Notes

b)     Coins

c)     Demand deposit

d)     All of the above

Q12. Investment made by MNC’s is termed as:

a)     Indigenous investments

b)     Foreign investments

c)     Entrepreneur’s investments

d)     None of the above

Q13. Study the Table given below and find the missing income of family.

Family

A

B

C

D

Average Income of families

Income

4000

7000

3000

?

5000

 

a)     7500

b)     6000

c)     5000

d)     3500

Q14. Arrange the following in the correct sequence

1)     People take loans from banks.

2)     People make deposits into banks.

3)     People get interests on deposits and make withdrawals.

4)     People repay loan with interest.

Options

a)     I, II,III,IV

b)     II,I,III,IV

c)     II,I,III.IV

d)     I,III,IV,II

Q15. Globalization has led to improvement in living conditions

a)     Of all the people

b)     Of people in the developed countries

c)     Of workers in the developing countries

d)     None of the above

Q16. Why did Manchester export to India decline after the Firs World War?

a)     People were busy fighting war

b)     Factories close down due to security problems

c)     Factories and mills were busy producing goods to fulfill the need of army.

d)     All the above

Q17. Which of the following is included in tertiary sector?

a)     ATM

b)     Call Centres

c)     Internet Café

d)     All of them

Q 18.The Mundas and Santhal of Chota Nagpur region worship which one of the following trees?

(a)   Mahua  (b) Mango  (c) Peepal    (d)  Tamarind

Q19. Which of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?

(a)   Intensive cultivation   (b) deforestation    (c) over irrigation      (d) overgrazing

Q20. Which of the following is a leguminous crop?

(a)   Pulses  (b) jowar  (c) millets   (d) seasamun 

 

Section B

Very Short Answer Questions (2X4= 8)

Q21. What was the reason behind the launch of Non-Cooperation movement by Gandhi ji?

Q22. Resource planning is a complex process but can’t be ignored. Why?

OR

         Solar Energy has great future in India. Explain with examples.

Q23. The Criteria of development used by UNDP is different from the World Bank. Give Details.

Q24. What steps have been taken in 1992 to strengthen federalism in India?

Section C

Short Answer Questions (3X5= 15)

Q25. Describe the Economic conditions of India after 1st World War.

OR

          Gandhi ji took Salt March as an opportunity to unite Hindu and Muslims. Why?

Q26. Why most of the Jute Mills located near the Hugli River?

Q27.What is the different ways by which MNC’s spread their Overseas Trade?

Q28. Now a days Territory sector is becoming most popular among youth. Why?

Q29. Caste plays important role in shaping Indian politics. Justify the statement with suitable Examples.

Section D

Long Answer Questions (5X4= 20)

Q30. What steps have been taken by the French Revolutionaries for common identification among people?

OR

        Explain the role of Art, Culture and Language in shaping the idea of nationalism among European people.

Q31. What is land degradation? Explain the factors responsible for it and how can we cure it?

Or

        “write down some features of black, alluvial and arid soils.

Q32. There is no Democracy without political parties. Why?

Or

         What are the reforms done for political parties and what can be suggested by you?

Q33. Why should informal sources of credit  expanded in rural areas of India? Justify with examples.

OR

        Explain the functions of Reserve Bank of India.

Section E

Case Based Questions (4x3= 12)

Q34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.

The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world. The name ‘silk routes’ points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route. Historians have identified several silk routes, over land and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and linking Asia with Europe and northern Africa. They are known to have existed since before the Christian era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century. But Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious metals – gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia. Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later. Much before all this, Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes. Food offers many examples of long-distance cultural exchange. Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the lands they travelled. Even ‘ready’ foodstuff in distant parts of the world might share common origins. Take spaghetti and noodles. It is believed that noodles travelled west from China to become spaghetti. Many of our common foods such as potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chillies, sweet potatoes, and so on were not known to our ancestors until about five centuries ago. These foods were only introduced in Europe and Asia after Christopher Columbus accidentally discovered the vast continent that would later become known as the Americas.

 

Q34.1 Define term“ Silk Route”.  1

Q34.2. Write down names of some food items that were not known by our ancestors but introduced by European.  2

Q34.3. Who discovered America?    1

 

Q35. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.

We all appreciate the strong dependence of industry and agriculture upon mineral deposits and the substances manufactured from them. The total volume of workable mineral deposits is an insignificant fraction i.e. one per cent of the earth’s crust. We are rapidly consuming mineral resources that required millions of years to be created and concentrated. The geological processes of mineral formation are so slow that the rates of replenishment are infinitely small in comparison to the present rates of consumption. Mineral resources are, therefore, finite and non-renewable. Rich mineral deposits are our country’s extremely valuable but short-lived possessions. Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing costs as mineral extraction comes from greater depths along with decrease in quality. A concerted effort has to be made in order to use our mineral resources in a planned and sustainable manner. Improved technologies need to be constantly evolved to allow use of low grade ores at low costs. Recycling of metals, using scrap metals and other substitutes are steps in conserving our mineral resources for the future.

 

Q35.1. why should we conserve minerals?    1

Q35.2. write down some ways to conserve minerals. 2

Q35.3. write an example of non- renewable mineral.  1

 

Q36. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.

Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.

In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil. The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs. A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism. All these government measures, coming one after the other, gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language and culture. They felt that the constitution and government policies denied them equal political rights, discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities and ignored their interests. As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over time.

 

Q36.1. When did Sinhala recognized as the only official language of Sri Lanka?    1

Q36.2. Define the term “Majoritarianism”. 2

Q36.3. what was the result of Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka?  1

 

 Section F

Map Based Questions (2+3= 5)

 

Q37.  37a. Two places A & B have been marked on the Given Outline Map of India. Identify them and write their correct name on the line drawn near them.

A.    Indian National Congress Session held at this place in 1927.

B.    The place from where Gandhi ji called off Non Cooperation Movement in 1922.

          37b. On the same Outline Map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable Symbols.

A.    Narora Atomic Power Station.

B.    Sardar Sarovar Dam.

C.    Mohali Software Technology Park

D.    Kandla Port

 Note: The following Questions are for visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Question No. 37. Attempt any five questions

37.1Name the place where Indian National Congress Session held  in 1927

      37.2 Name the Place from where Gandhi ji called off Non Cooperation Movement in 1922.

     37.3 Name the state where Narora AtomicPower Station is located

     37.4 Name the state where SardarSsarovar Dam is located.

    37.5 Name the state where Mohali Software Park is located.

    37.6 Name the state where Kandla port is located.

 


          

 

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